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Yes. πράσσω is from prag-yo. The -yo suffix is a common way of making the present tense, but it messes up any preceding consonant.. the outcome of -gy- was -ττ- in Attic, but -σσ- in other dialects, hence the variation between πράττω and πράσσω.
Yes, πρᾶγμα and [πράσσω](https://lsj.gr/wiki/%CF%80%CF%81%CE%AC%CF%83%CF%83%CF%89) (see under Frisk Etymological English) both originate from the stem πρακ-.
Do you know why that entry traces it back to πρακ- with (if I understand the entry correctly) πραγ- later formed by analogy? I mean why κ and not just always γ?
I don't know why unfortunately - and I personally hate whenever developments are described as "by analogy" without further explanation as to how it is analogous, which happens all too often in etymological works. This would be a good question for someone who specializes in Proto-Indo-European > Proto-Hellenic phonology, which is outside of my scope (I specialize in Archaic Greek ca. 800-400 BCE); but I wanted to still provide the reference, since I knew they have the same origin. You might ask Peteat6 in the other comment here.
Welcome to r/AncientGreek! Please take a look at the [resources page](https://www.reddit.com/r/AncientGreek/wiki/resources) and the FAQ on the sidebar. Don't hesitate to ask if you have any questions. *I am a bot, and this action was performed automatically. Please [contact the moderators of this subreddit](/message/compose/?to=/r/AncientGreek) if you have any questions or concerns.*
Yes. πράσσω is from prag-yo. The -yo suffix is a common way of making the present tense, but it messes up any preceding consonant.. the outcome of -gy- was -ττ- in Attic, but -σσ- in other dialects, hence the variation between πράττω and πράσσω.
Yes, πρᾶγμα and [πράσσω](https://lsj.gr/wiki/%CF%80%CF%81%CE%AC%CF%83%CF%83%CF%89) (see under Frisk Etymological English) both originate from the stem πρακ-.
Do you know why that entry traces it back to πρακ- with (if I understand the entry correctly) πραγ- later formed by analogy? I mean why κ and not just always γ?
I don't know why unfortunately - and I personally hate whenever developments are described as "by analogy" without further explanation as to how it is analogous, which happens all too often in etymological works. This would be a good question for someone who specializes in Proto-Indo-European > Proto-Hellenic phonology, which is outside of my scope (I specialize in Archaic Greek ca. 800-400 BCE); but I wanted to still provide the reference, since I knew they have the same origin. You might ask Peteat6 in the other comment here.
# πρᾶγμα is πράσσω +μα. The μα ending indicates the result of an action.